CompTIA CAS-004 Dumps - The Sure Way To Pass Exam
CAS-004 Exam Questions (Updated 2024) 100% Real Question Answers
NEW QUESTION # 210
A security administrator wants to detect a potential forged sender claim in tt-e envelope of an email.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement? (Select TWO).
- A. MX record
- B. S/MIME
- C. TLS
- D. DNSSEC
- E. SPF
- F. DMARC
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
Explanation
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) and SPF (Sender Policy Framework) are two mechanisms that can help detect and prevent email spoofing, which is the creation of email messages with a forged sender address. DMARC allows a domain owner to publish a policy that specifies how receivers should handle messages that fail authentication tests, such as SPF or DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). SPF allows a domain owner to specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of their domain. By checking the DMARC and SPF records of the sender's domain, a receiver can verify if the email is from a legitimate source or not. Verified References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Email_spoofing
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DMARC
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sender_Policy_Framework
NEW QUESTION # 211
A recent data breach revealed that a company has a number of files containing customer data across its storage environment. These files are individualized for each employee and are used in tracking various customer orders, inquiries, and issues. The files are not encrypted and can be accessed by anyone. The senior management team would like to address these issues without interrupting existing processes.
Which of the following should a security architect recommend?
- A. A CRM application to consolidate the data and provision access based on the process and need
- B. An ERP program to identify which processes need to be tracked
- C. A CMDB to report on systems that are not configured to security baselines
- D. A DLP program to identify which files have customer data and delete them
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 212
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Installing a network firewall
- B. Deploying a honeypot
- C. Placing a WAF inline
- D. Implementing an IDS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 213
A company's product site recently had failed API calls, resulting in customers being unable to check out and purchase products. This type of failure could lead to the loss of customers and damage to the company's reputation in the market.
Which of the following should the company implement to address the risk of system unavailability?
- A. Application controls
- B. A self-healing system
- C. Redundant reporting systems
- D. User and entity behavior analytics
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application Controls If changes to the application allow for reducing risk while business needs remain satisfied, then why not make use of application controls that further harden the system?
Application control includes completeness and validity checks, identification, authentication, authorization, input controls, and forensic controls, among others. An example of an application control is the validity check, which reviews the data entered into a data entry screen to ensure that it meets a set of predetermined range criteria.
NEW QUESTION # 214
A network administrator receives a ticket regarding an error from a remote worker who is trying to reboot a laptop. The laptop has not yet loaded the operating system, and the user is unable to continue the boot process.
The administrator is able to provide the user with a recovery PIN, and the user is able to reboot the system and access the device as needed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
- A. Lockout of privileged access account
- B. Duration of the BitLocker lockout period
- C. Failure of the Kerberos time drift sync
- D. Failure of TPM authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-6b71ad27-
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker/bit
https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks/BitLockerRecoveryKe
NEW QUESTION # 215
A third-party organization has implemented a system that allows it to analyze customers' data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data. Which of the following is the organization implementing?
- A. Machine learning
- B. Homomorphic encryption
- C. Asynchronous keys
- D. Data lake
Answer: B
Explanation:
The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers' data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest
https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption
NEW QUESTION # 216
The code snippet below controls all electronic door locks to a secure facility in which the doors should only fail open in an emergency. In the code, "criticalValue" indicates if an emergency is underway:
Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a security analyst to recommend to the software developer?
- A. Rewrite the software's exception handling routine to fail in a secure state
- B. Rewrite the software to implement fine-grained, conditions-based testing
- C. Add additional exception handling logic to the main program to prevent doors from being opened
- D. Apply for a life-safety-based risk exception allowing secure doors to fail open
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 217
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Placing a WAF inline
- B. Deploying a honeypot
- C. Implementing an IDS
- D. Installing a network firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Firewall does not make sense in this scenario. Best mitigation from those available is the WAF.
NEW QUESTION # 218
A security architect is designing a solution for a new customer who requires significant security capabilities in its environment. The customer has provided the architect with the following set of requirements:
* Capable of early detection of advanced persistent threats.
* Must be transparent to users and cause no performance degradation.
+ Allow integration with production and development networks seamlessly.
+ Enable the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques.
Which of the following technologies BEST meets the customer's requirements for security capabilities? A.
- A. Sandbox detonation
- B. Deception software
- C. Centralized logging
- D. Threat Intelligence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Deception software is a technology that creates realistic but fake assets (such as servers, applications, data, etc.) that mimic the real environment and lure attackers into interacting with them. By doing so, deception software can help detect advanced persistent threats (APTs) that may otherwise evade traditional security tools
12. Deception software can also provide valuable insights into the attacker's tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) by capturing their actions and behaviors on the decoys Deception software can meet the customer's requirements for security capabilities because:
It is capable of early detection of APTs by creating attractive targets for them and alerting security teams when they are engaged12.
It is transparent to users and causes no performance degradation because it does not interfere with legitimate traffic or resources13.
It allows integration with production and development networks seamlessly because it can create decoys that match the network topology and configuration It enables the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques because it can record and analyze the attacker's activities on the decoys13.
NEW QUESTION # 219
A security analyst runs a vulnerability scan on a network administrator's workstation. The network administrator has direct administrative access to the company's SSO web portal. The vulnerability scan uncovers critical vulnerabilities with equally high CVSS scores for the user's browser, OS, email client, and an offline password manager. Which of the following should the security analyst patch FIRST?
- A. Email client
- B. OS
- C. Password manager
- D. Browser
Answer: D
Explanation:
The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified Reference:
https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researchers-find
NEW QUESTION # 220
When implementing a penetration testing program, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) designates different organizational groups within the organization as having different responsibilities, attack vectors, and rules of engagement. First, the CISO designates a team to operate from within the corporate environment. This team is commonly referred to as:
- A. the operations team.
- B. the read team.
- C. the development team.
- D. the white team.
- E. the blue team.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 221
An engineering team is developing and deploying a fleet of mobile devices to be used for specialized inventory management purposes. These devices should:
- Be based on open-source Android for user familiarity and ease.
- Provide a single application for inventory management of physical
assets.
- Permit use of the camera be only the inventory application for the
purposes of scanning
- Disallow any and all configuration baseline modifications.
- restrict all access to any device resource other than those required
for use of the inventory management application
Which of the following approaches would best meet these security requirements?
- A. Write a MAC sepolicy that defines domains with rules, label the inventory application, build the policy, and set to enforcing mode.
- B. Set an application wrapping policy, wrap the application, distributes the inventory APK via the MAM tool, and test the application restrictions.
- C. Build and install an Android middleware policy with requirements added, copy the file into/ user/init, and then built the inventory application.
- D. Swap out Android Linux kernel version for >2,4,0, but the internet build Android, remove unnecessary functions via MDL, configure to block network access, and perform integration testing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 222
During a phishing exercise, a few privileged users ranked high on the failure list. The enterprise would like to ensure that privileged users have an extra security-monitoring control in place. Which of the following Is the MOST likely solution?
- A. A WAF to protect web traffic
- B. Requirements to change the local password
- C. A gap analysis
- D. User and entity behavior analytics
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to monitor and detect unusual or malicious activity by privileged users who failed the phishing exercise. UEBA uses machine learning and behavioral analytics to establish a baseline of normal activity and identify anomalies that indicate potential threats. UEBA can help detect compromised credentials, insider threats, and advanced persistent threats that may evade traditional security solutions. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 223
Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts partial responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?
- A. FaaS
- B. laaS
- C. SaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: D
Explanation:
With the PAAS the responsibility is shared where the CSP would manage the underlying OS and the customer would manage the software that is running on top of the OS.
NEW QUESTION # 224
An organization recently recovered from an attack that featured an adversary injecting Malicious logic into OS bootloaders on endpoint devices Therefore, the organization decided to require the use of TPM for measured boot and attestation, monitoring each component from the IJEFI through the full loading of OS components. of the following TPM structures enables this storage functionality?
- A. Platform configuration registers
- B. Command tag structures with MAC schemes
- C. Endorsement tickets
- D. Clock/counter structures
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 225
A city government's IT director was notified by the city council that the following cybersecurity requirements must be met to be awarded a large federal grant:
- Logs for all critical devices must be retained for 365 days to enable monitoring and threat hunting.
- All privileged user access must be tightly controlled and tracked to
mitigate compromised accounts.
- Ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities must be quickly
identified.
Which of the following technologies would BEST satisfy these requirements? (Choose three.)
- A. NGFW
- B. PAM
- C. Endpoint protection
- D. SIEM
- E. Zero trust network access
- F. Log aggregator
- G. Cloud sandbox
Answer: B,F,G
NEW QUESTION # 226
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