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Related Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Enterprise networking continues to witness massive growth ever since Cisco introduced a new certification curriculum in early 2020. This is best shown by the increasing popularity of the Cisco CCNP Enterprise certification, which does much more than just equipping you with vital IT skills. The new CCNP Enterprise training embodies success with enterprise networking technologies and to obtain it, you must pass two exams: the aforementioned Cisco 350-401, which is a core validation, and one additional concentration exam. That being said, the full list of the concentration tests associated with this learning path includes 300-410, 300-415, 300-420, 300-425, 300-430, and 300-435 exams.
What is the effective preparation process?
It is expected that the potential candidates are able to cover all the questions of the exam. That is why they need to have a thorough preparation process and repeat all the information required for Cisco 350-401. For this purpose, the applicants can take the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies course. This piece of training provides the individuals with the skills and knowledge needed for configuring, troubleshooting, and managing enterprise wireless & wired networks. They will also learn about the implementation process of security principles, programmability & automation within the enterprise network and discover how to design the overlay network with utilizing SD-WAN & SD-Access solutions. Please note that the students can choose between various delivery options of the ENCOR course. With the e-learning way, they will get the content with challenges, practice, and videos that is equivalent to 8 days of education. As for the instructor-led training, the learners will have 3 days of self-study and 5 days of hands-on lab practice.
Besides that, those individuals who prefer the traditional way of education can use books for their preparation. It is recommended to start with the CCNP & CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Certification Guide if you want to gain all the required information for the exam. Moreover, there are a lot of practice tests that are free on the Internet. The candidates can opt for this tool, which allows them to dive into the atmosphere of a real exam and validate their level of preparedness.
NEW QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit.
The inside and outside interfaces in the NAT configuration of this device have been correctly identified. What is the effect of this configuration?
- A. PAT
- B. dynamic NAT
- C. NAT64
- D. static NAT
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The command "ip nat inside source list 1 interface gigabitethernet0/0 overload" translates all source addresses that pass access list 1, which means 172.16.1.0/24 subnet, into an address assigned to gigabitethernet0/0 interface. Overload keyword allows to map multiple IP addresses to a single registered IP address (many-toone) by using different ports so it is called Port Address Translation (PAT).
NEW QUESTION 94
How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?
- A. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address correct
- B. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
- C. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
- D. uses flexible NetFlow
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The Cisco TrustSec solution simplifies the provisioning and management of network access control through the use of software-defined segmentation to classify network traffic and enforce policies for more flexible access controls. Traffic classification is based on endpoint identity, not IP address, enabling policy change without net-work redesign.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Apr2016/User-to- DC_Access_Control_Using_TrustSec_Deployment_April2016.pd
NEW QUESTION 95
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
- A. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
- B. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
- C. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
- D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table - CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.
NEW QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit.
A network architect has partially configured static NAT. which commands should be asked to complete the configuration?
- A. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat outside
R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat inside - B. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat outside
R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat inside - C. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat inside
R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat outside - D. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat inside
R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat outside
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 97
VLAN identifier space is only 12 bits. The VXLAN identifier space is 24 bits. This doubling in size allows the VXLAN ID space to support 16 million Layer 2 segments -> Answer 'VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network' is not correct.
VXLAN is a MAC-in-UDP encapsulation method that is used in order to extend a Layer 2 or Layer 3 overlay network over a Layer 3 infrastructure that already exists.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vlan/212682-virtualextensible- lan-and-ethernet-virt.html QUSTION NO: 97 A client with IP address 209 16b 201 2b must access a web server on port 80 at 209 I6b.200.22b. To allow this traffic. an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web server Which statement allows this traffic?
- A. permit tcp host 209 165.201 25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80
- B. permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80
- C. permit tcp host 209.165.200 225 It 80 host 209.165.201.25
- D. permit tcp host 209 165 200 225 eq 80 host 209.165.201.25
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 98
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the correct Infrastructure deployment type on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of the configuration''
- A. The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+
- B. When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4. the device will authenticate them against TACACS* if local authentication fails
- C. The device will allow only users at 192 168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4
- D. The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of the configuration''
- A. The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+
- B. When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4. the device will authenticate them against TACACS* if local authentication fails
- C. The device will allow only users at 192 168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4
- D. The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must create a script that appends the output of the show process cpu sorted command to a file.
Which action completes the configuration?
- A. action 4.0 syslog command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file"
- B. action 4.0 ens-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file"
- C. action 4.0 publish-event "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file"
- D. action 4.0 cli command "show process cpu sorted | append flash:high-cpu-file"
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 102
A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?
- A. container
- B. Type 2 hypervisor
- C. Type 1 hypervisor
- D. hardware pass-thru
Answer: B
Explanation:
In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).
NEW QUESTION 103
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller.
Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?
- A. Auto
- B. Active
- C. On
- D. Passive
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669
NEW QUESTION 104
What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?
- A. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.
- B. It requires a client certificate.
- C. It operates in transparent mode.
- D. It is an IETF standard.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-fixed/72788-CSSC-Deployment-Guide.h
NEW QUESTION 105
Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?
- A. UDP jitter
- B. ICMP echo
- C. ICMP jitter
- D. TCP connect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/ Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf
NEW QUESTION 106
Refer the exhibit.
Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?
- A. This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.
- B. Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID
- C. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.
- D. Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 107
Drag the drop the description from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 108
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the protocols they apply to on the right?
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Diagram Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION 109
Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value?
- A. antenna cable loss
- B. signal-to-noise ratio
- C. transmitter power
- D. antenna gain
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 110
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true?
- A. Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router.
- B. The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router.
- C. Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address.
- D. After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 111
Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
- A. DF bit Clear
- B. TCP MSS
- C. MTU ignore
- D. TCP window size
- E. IP MTU
- F. PMTUD
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 112
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
- A. core switch
- B. edge node
- C. border node
- D. access switch
- E. vBond controller
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation
There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+ Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay.
+ Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+ Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+ Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+ Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.
NEW QUESTION 113
Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?
- A. AES128
- B. SSL
- C. MD5
- D. AES256
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of configuring NTP authentication is shown below:
Router1(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 itexamanswersRouter1(config)#ntp authenticateRouter1(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
NEW QUESTION 114
Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.)
- A. Oracle VM VirtualBox
- B. Microsoft Virtual PC
- C. VMware ESX
- D. Microsoft Hyper-V
- E. VMware server
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION 115
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