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NEW QUESTION # 213
Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?
- A. OSPF
- B. EIGRP
- C. BGP
- D. IS-IS
Answer: C
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.
NEW QUESTION # 214
Which of the following is a use case for a PaaS environment?
- A. Cloud-native software
- B. Mobile access
- C. Application development
- D. E-commerce site
Answer: C
Explanation:
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is best suited for application development because it provides a managed platform that includes the runtime environment, development frameworks, middleware, databases (often), and build/deployment tooling. In a PaaS model, the cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, networking, OS patching, and often the application runtime), allowing developers to focus on writing code, testing, and releasing applications quickly. This aligns with Network+ cloud concepts where service models are compared by responsibility: PaaS reduces operational overhead for the customer and accelerates development through standardized environments and automation.
Mobile access is a use case for remote access solutions (VPN, zero trust access, MDM), not specifically PaaS. An e-commerce site could be hosted using many models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), so it's not the most specific match. Cloud-native software describes an architectural style (microservices, containers, managed services) and can be built using PaaS components, but it is broader than a single "use case" and is not as directly tied to the PaaS definition as application development is. Therefore, application development is the clearest and most accurate PaaS use case.
NEW QUESTION # 215
A company recently converted most of the office laptops to connect wirelessly to the corporate network. After a high-traffic malware attack, narrowing the event to a specific user was difficult because of the wireless configuration.
Which of the following actions should the company take?
- A. Restrict users to the 5GHz frequency.
- B. Implement WPA2 encryption.
- C. Migrate from PSK to Enterprise.
- D. Upgrade to a mesh network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using Pre-Shared Key (PSK) authentication means that all users share the same Wi-Fi password, making it difficult to identify individual users when security incidents occur.
Migrating to WPA2-Enterprise (or WPA3-Enterprise) replaces PSK authentication with individual user credentials using 802.1X authentication and a RADIUS server. This allows the organization to:
Track and log specific user activity
Enforce per-user authentication policies
Improve network security
Breakdown of Options:
A: Restrict users to the 5GHz frequency - Improves performance but does not enhance user tracking or security.
B: Upgrade to a mesh network - A mesh network improves coverage, not security tracking.
C: Migrate from PSK to Enterprise - # Correct answer. WPA2-Enterprise or WPA3-Enterprise uses individual user authentication, allowing per-user tracking.
D: Implement WPA2 encryption - WPA2 is already widely used; it does not resolve the tracking issue.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Domain 3.4: Given a scenario, implement wireless security measures.
IEEE 802.1X: Authentication framework for network access control
NEW QUESTION # 216
Which of the following attacks would most likely cause duplicate IP addresses in a network?
- A. Denial-of-service
- B. Social engineering
- C. Rogue DHCP server
- D. DNS poisoning
Answer: C
Explanation:
Definition of a Rogue DHCP Server:
A rogue DHCP server is an unauthorized DHCP server on a network, which can assign IP addresses to devices without proper control, leading to IP address conflicts.
Impact of a Rogue DHCP Server:
IP Address Conflicts: Multiple devices may receive the same IP address from different DHCP servers, causing network connectivity issues.
Network Disruption: Devices may be assigned incorrect network configuration settings, disrupting network services and connectivity.
NEW QUESTION # 217
A network engineer needs to deploy an access point at a remote office so that it will not communicate back to the wireless LAN controller. Which of the following deployment methods must the engineer use to accomplish this task?
- A. Autonomous
- B. Mesh
- C. Lightweight
- D. Ad hoc
Answer: A
Explanation:
Autonomous access points operate independently without needing to communicate with a central wireless LAN controller. This is ideal for remote deployments.
From Andrew Ramdayal's guide:
"Autonomous access points are stand-alone devices that manage their own configurations and operations.
They do not require a WLC and are ideal for small or remote office deployments."
NEW QUESTION # 218
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?
- A. Data-at-rest encryption
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Time-based authentication
- D. Honeynet
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 219
SIMULATION
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 220
Which of the following appliances provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated WLAN?
- A. Access point
- B. Firewall
- C. Switch
- D. Router
Answer: A
Explanation:
An access point (AP) provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).
Router: Typically used to connect different networks, not specifically for extending wireless coverage.
Switch: Used to connect devices within a wired network, not for providing wireless access.
Access Point (AP): Extends wireless network coverage, allowing multiple wireless devices to connect to the network.
Firewall: Primarily used for network security, controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, not for providing wireless connectivity.
Network Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Explains the roles and functions of network appliances, including access points.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on deploying and managing wireless networks with access points.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers network devices and their roles in creating and managing networks.
NEW QUESTION # 221
An organization requires the ability to send encrypted email messages to a partner from an email server that is hosted on premises. The organization prefers to use the standard default ports when creating firewall rules. Which of the following ports should be open to satisfy the requirements?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port 587 is the standard default port for sending email (SMTP) with TLS encryption, which is used to secure email transmissions between mail servers or between clients and mail servers. Allowing traffic over port 587 enables secure email sending while maintaining standard protocol usage. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Ports and Protocols)
NEW QUESTION # 222
A network architect of a stock exchange broker is implementing a disaster recovery (DR), high-availability plan. Which of the following approaches would be the best fit?
- A. Warm site
- B. Active-active
- C. Full mesh
- D. In-band
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is Active-active because a stock exchange broker requires extremely high availability, minimal downtime, and near-zero data loss. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under high availability and disaster recovery concepts, an active-active configuration involves multiple systems or sites operating simultaneously and sharing the workload. If one system fails, the other continues processing traffic without service interruption.
This model provides the lowest Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO), which is critical in financial trading environments where even seconds of downtime can result in major financial loss. Active-active architectures also support load balancing, redundancy, and continuous synchronization between systems.
A warm site (Option A) contains preconfigured hardware but may require data restoration and configuration before becoming fully operational, resulting in some downtime. A full mesh (Option C) is a network topology design and does not specifically address disaster recovery at the service level. In-band (Option D) refers to management traffic sharing the production network and is unrelated to DR strategy.
Therefore, an active-active approach is the most suitable solution for mission-critical financial operations.
NEW QUESTION # 223
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A. Link state flooding
- B. Hop count
- C. Neighbor adjacency
- D. Administrative distance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
Verification:
After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9fasic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 224
Which of the followingnetwork portsis used when a client accesses anSFTPserver?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)operates overport 22, usingSSH (Secure Shell) encryptionfor secure file transfers.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. 22-Correct answer.SFTP runs overSSH (port 22)for secure file transfers.
* B. 80- Used forHTTP, not SFTP.
* C. 443- Used forHTTPS (secure web traffic).
* D. 3389- Used forRDP (Remote Desktop Protocol).
NEW QUESTION # 225
A network administrator deploys several new desk phones and workstation cubicles. Each cubicle has one assigned switchport. The administrator runs the following commands:
nginx
CopyEdit
switchport mode access
switchport voice vlan 69
With which of the following VLANs will the workstation traffic be tagged?
- A. Data VLAN
- B. Native VLAN
- C. Private VLAN
- D. Voice VLAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the command switchport voice vlan 69 is used, it tags the voice traffic with VLAN 69, while the workstation traffic continues untagged on the access VLAN, which is typically considered thedata VLAN. This configuration enables both voice and data traffic over the same port while keeping them in separate VLANs for QoS and traffic management.
Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 226
A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network.
The customer reports that some of the devices are not connecting to the network, while others appear to work as intended.
INSTRUCTIONS
Troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results by Clicking on each device and cable.
Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
Cable Test Results:
Cable 1:
Cable 2:
Cable 3:
Cable 4:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results, you can use the following steps:
* Click on each device and cable to open its information window.
* Review the information and identify any problems or errors that may affect the network connectivity or performance.
* Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
* Fill in the remediation form using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the remediation form for PC1:
* The component with a problem is PC1.
* The problem is Incorrect IP address.
* The solution is Change the IP address to 192.168.1.10.
You can use the same steps to fill in the remediation form for other components.
To enter commands in each device, you can use the following steps:
* Click on the device to open its terminal window.
* Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of the device, including its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
* Enter the command ping <IP address> to test the connectivity and reachability to another device on the network by sending and receiving echo packets. Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.
* Enter the command tracert <IP address> to trace the route and measure the latency of packets from the device to another device on the network by sending and receiving packets withincreasing TTL values.
Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.
Here is an example of how to enter commands in PC1:
* Click on PC1 to open its terminal window.
* Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of PC1. You should see that PC1 has an incorrect IP address of 192.168.2.10, which belongs to VLAN 2 instead of VLAN 1.
* Enter the command ping 192.168.1.1 to test the connectivity to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to ping Core Switch 1 because they are on different subnets.
* Enter the command tracert 192.168.1.1 to trace the route to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to reach Core Switch 1 because there is no route between them.
You can use the same steps to enter commands in other devices, such as PC3, PC4, PC5, and Server 1.
NEW QUESTION # 227
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A. A hub utilizing jumbo frames
- B. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
- C. A router with only one available LAN port
- D. A firewall performing deep packet inspection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
Use Case for Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
Example Configuration:
Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
Explanation of the Options:
A . A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.
B . A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.
C . A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and do not manage IP addressing.
D . A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.
Conclusion:
Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
NEW QUESTION # 228
What type of filtering can block access to websites based on their domain or country code TLDs (e.g., .cn, .ru)?
- A. URL filtering
- B. Content filtering
- C. MAC filtering
- D. DNS poisoning
Answer: A
Explanation:
URL filtering can block access to websites based on their domain or country code TLDs (e.g., .cn, .ru). This is the correct method to block by location identifiers in URLs.
* B. Content filtering blocks based on keywords or categories within websites, not country code.
* C. DNS poisoning is an attack, not a control mechanism.
* D. MAC filtering restricts devices, not websites.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Security - Filtering technologies, URL vs content filtering.
NEW QUESTION # 229
A company is implementing a wireless solution in a high-density environment. Which of the following 802.11 standards is used when a company is concerned about device saturation and converage?
- A. 802.11g
- B. 802.11ax
- C. 802.11ac
- D. 802.11n
Answer: B
Explanation:
802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, is designed for high-density environments and improves device saturation and coverage compared to previous standards.
802.11ac: While it offers high throughput, it is not optimized for high-density environments as effectively as 802.11ax.
802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6): Introduces features like OFDMA, MU-MIMO, and BSS Coloring, which enhance performance in crowded environments, reduce latency, and increase the number of devices that can be connected simultaneously.
802.11g and 802.11n: Older standards that do not offer the same level of efficiency or support for high device density as 802.11ax.
NEW QUESTION # 230
Which of the following connector types is most commonly associated with Wi-Fi antennas?
- A. SFP
- B. RJ45
- C. MPO
- D. BNC
Answer: D
Explanation:
BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connectors are commonly used with coaxial cables in RF and wireless applications, including some older Wi-Fi antennas and specialized networking equipment. The document says:
"BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connectors are typically used with coaxial cables, especially in radio frequency (RF) and some Wi-Fi antenna applications, providing a secure and quick connect/disconnect."
NEW QUESTION # 231
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