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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification for professionals involved in the management of IT risk and information systems (IS) control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification exam validates the candidate's knowledge and skills required to identify, evaluate, and manage IT risk and implement and maintain effective IS controls.
The benefits of earning a CRISC certification are numerous. For one, it can help professionals stand out in a competitive job market and increase their earning potential. Additionally, it can provide a pathway to leadership roles within an organization, as it demonstrates an individual's expertise in risk management and IT governance. Finally, it can help organizations identify and mitigate risks in their information systems, which can lead to increased efficiency, better decision-making, and reduced costs.
NEW QUESTION # 709
Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?
- A. Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.
- B. A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.
- C. Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.
- D. The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 710
What is the PRIMARY need for effectively assessing controls?
- A. Control's alignment with operating environment
- B. Control's objective achievement
- C. Control's operating effectiveness
- D. Control's design effectiveness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Controls can be effectively assessed only by determining how accurately the control objective is achieved within the environment in which they are operating. No conclusion can be reached as to the strength of the control until the control has been adequately tested.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Alignment of control with the operating environment is essential but after the control's accuracy in achieving objective. In other words, achieving objective is the top most priority in assessing controls.
B: Control's design effectiveness is also considered but is latter considered after achieving objectives.
D: Control's operating effectiveness is considered but after its accuracy in objective achievement.
NEW QUESTION # 711
A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?
- A. Corrective
- B. Detective
- C. Deterrent
- D. Preventative
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 712
There are four inputs to the Monitoring and Controlling Project Risks process. Which one of the following will NOT help you, the project manager, to prepare for risk monitoring and controlling?
- A. Explanation:
Change requests are not one of the four inputs to the Risk Monitoring and Controlling Process.
The four inputs are the risk register, the project management plan, work performance information,
and performance reports. - B. Project management plan
- C. Risk register
- D. Work Performance Information
- E. Change requests
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
C, and B are incorrect. These are the valid inputs to the Risk Monitoring and
Controlling Process.
NEW QUESTION # 713
What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
Choose three.
- A. Determination of cause and effect
- B. Determination of the value of an asset
- C. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
- D. Determination of the value of business process at risk
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Creating a scenario requires determination of the value of an asset or a business process at risk and the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss. The risk scenario should be assessed for relevance and realism, and then entered into the risk register if found to be relevant.
In practice following steps are involved in risk scenario development:
* First determine manageable set of scenarios, which include:
- Frequently occurring scenarios in the industry or product area.
- Scenarios representing threat sources that are increasing in count or severity level.
- Scenarios involving legal and regulatory requirements applicable to the business.
* After determining manageable risk scenarios, perform a validation against the business objectives of the entity.
* Based on this validation, refine the selected scenarios and then detail them to a level in line with the criticality of the entity.
* Lower down the number of scenarios to a manageable set. Manageable does not signify a fixed number, but should be in line with the overall importance and criticality of the unit.
* Risk factors kept in a register so that they can be reevaluated in the next iteration and included for detailed analysis if they have become relevant at that time.
* Risk factors kept in a register so that they can be reevaluated in the next iteration and included for detailed analysis if they have become relevant at that time.
* Include an unspecified event in the scenarios, that is, address an incident not covered by other scenarios.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Cause-and-effect analysis is a predictive or diagnostic analytical tool used to explore the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes. It is used during the process of exposing risk factors.
NEW QUESTION # 714
What type of policy would an organization use to forbid its employees from using organizational e-mail for personal use?
- A. Privacy policy
- B. Intellectual property policy
- C. Anti-harassment policy
- D. Acceptable use policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy is a set of rules applied by the owner/manager of a network, website or large computer system that restrict the ways in which the network site or system may be used. Acceptable Use Policies are an integral part of the framework of information security policies.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: These two policies are not related to Information system security.
D: Privacy policy is a statement or a legal document (privacy law) that discloses some or all of the ways a party gathers, uses, discloses and manages a customer or client's data.
NEW QUESTION # 715
When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?
- A. Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control
- B. Propose mitigating controls
- C. Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios
- D. Assess management's risk tolerance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 716
Natural disaster is BEST associated to which of the following types of risk?
- A. Large impact
- B. Short-term
- C. Explanation:
Natural disaster can be a long-term or short-term and can have large or small impact on the
company. However, as the natural disasters are unpredictable and infrequent, they are best
considered as discontinuous. - D. Discontinuous
- E. is incorrect. Natural disaster can be a short-term, but it is not the best answer.
- F. is incorrect. Natural disaster can be a long-term, but it is not the best answer.
- G. Long-term
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Natural disaster can be of large impact depending upon its nature, but it is
not the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 717
The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organizations IT risk management process should be to:
- A. assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.
- B. confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.
- C. ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.
- D. verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 718
Which of the following are true for quantitative analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Produces statistically reliable results
- B. Determines risk factors in terms of high/medium/low.
- C. Allows discovery of which phenomena are likely to be genuine and which are merely chance occurrences
- D. Allows data to be classified and counted
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As quantitative analysis is data driven, it:
Allows data classification and counting.
Allows statistical models to be constructed, which help in explaining what is being observed.
Generalizes findings for a larger population and direct comparisons between two different sets of data
or observations.
Produces statistically reliable results.
Allows discovery of phenomena which are likely to be genuine and merely occurs by chance.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk factors are expressed in terms of high/medium/low in qualitative analysis, and not in quantitative analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 719
Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?
- A. Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).
- B. Require independent control assessments.
- C. Obtain vendor references from existing customers.
- D. Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 720
Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?
- A. Communication plan
- B. Segregation of duties
- C. Critical asset inventory
- D. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 721
What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. Determination of cause and effect
- B. Determination of the value of an asset
- C. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
- D. Determination of the value of business process at risk
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Creating a scenario requires determination of the value of an asset or a business process at risk and the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss. The risk scenario should be assessed for relevance and realism, and then entered into the risk register if found to be relevant.
In practice following steps are involved in risk scenario development:
First determine manageable set of scenarios, which include:
- Frequently occurring scenarios in the industry or product area.
- Scenarios representing threat sources that are increasing in count or severity level.
- Scenarios involving legal and regulatory requirements applicable to the business.
After determining manageable risk scenarios, perform a validation against the business objectives of
the entity.
Based on this validation, refine the selected scenarios and then detail them to a level in line with the
criticality of the entity.
Lower down the number of scenarios to a manageable set. Manageable does not signify a fixed
number, but should be in line with the overall importance and criticality of the unit.
Risk factors kept in a register so that they can be reevaluated in the next iteration and included for
detailed analysis if they have become relevant at that time.
Risk factors kept in a register so that they can be reevaluated in the next iteration and included for
detailed analysis if they have become relevant at that time.
Include an unspecified event in the scenarios, that is, address an incident not covered by other
scenarios.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Cause-and-effect analysis is a predictive or diagnostic analytical tool used to explore the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes. It is used during the process of exposing risk factors.
NEW QUESTION # 722
Which of the following is the process of numerically analyzing the effects of identified risks on the overall enterprise's objectives?
- A. Qualitative Risk Assessment
- B. Monitoring and Controlling Risks
- C. Identifying Risks
- D. Quantitative Risk Assessment
- E. Explanation:
A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas. The results can help in identifying the priority of risks. These results are also used to determine the effectiveness of controls. Some of the terms associated with quantitative risk assessments are : Single loss expectancy (SLE)-It refers to the total loss expected from a single incident. This incident can occur when vulnerability is being exploited by threat. The loss is expressed as a dollar value such as $1,000. It includes the value of data, software, and hardware. SLE = Asset value * Exposure factor Annual rate of occurrence (ARO)-It refers to the number of times expected for an incident to occur in a year. If an incident occurred twice a month in the past year, the ARO is 24. Assuming nothing changes, it is likely that it will occur 24 times next year. Annual loss expectancy (ALE)-It is the expected loss for a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying SLE with ARO. Because SLE is a given in a dollar value, ALE is also given in a dollar value. For example, if the SLE is $1,000 and the ARO is 24, the ALE is $24,000. ALE = SLE * ARO Safeguard value-This is the cost of a control. Controls are used to mitigate risk. For example, antivirus software of an average cost of $50 for each computer. If there are 50 computers, the safeguard value is $2,500.
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. Unlike the quantitative risk assessment, qualitative risk assessment does not assign dollar values. Rather, it determines risk's level based on the probability and impact of a risk. These values are determined by gathering the opinions of experts. Probability- establishing the likelihood of occurrence and reoccurrence of specific risks, independently, and combined. The risk occurs when a threat exploits vulnerability. Scaling is done to define the probability that a risk will occur. The scale can be based on word values such as Low, Medium, or High. Percentage can also be assigned to these words, like 10% to low and 90% to high. Impact- Impact is used to identify the magnitude of identified risks. The risk leads to some type of loss. However, instead of quantifying the loss as a dollar value, an impact assessment could use words such as Low, Medium, or High. Impact is expressed as a relative value. For example, low could be 10, medium could be 50, and high could be 100. Risk level= Probability*Impact Answer: A is incorrect. The first thing we must do in risk management is to identify the areas of the project where the risks can occur. This is termed as risk identification. Listing all the possible risks is proved to be very productive for the enterprise as we can cure them before it can occur. In risk identification both threats and opportunities are considered, as both carry some level of risk with them. Answer: D is incorrect. This is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness through the project.
NEW QUESTION # 723
You are the risk official of your enterprise. You have just completed risk analysis process. You noticed that the risk level associated with your project is less than risk tolerance level of your enterprise. Which of following is the MOST likely action you should take?
- A. Update risk register
- B. No action
- C. Prioritize risk response options
- D. Apply risk response
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When the risk level is less than risk tolerance level of the enterprise than no action is taken against that, because the cost of mitigation will increase over its benefits.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is not a valid answer, as no response is being applied to such low risk level.
B: Risk register is updates after applying response, and as no response is applied to such low risk level; hence no updating is done.
D: This is not a valid answer, as no response is being applied to such low risk level.
NEW QUESTION # 724
The best way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:
- A. interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures
- B. inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs
- C. demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files
- D. conduct an audit of files stored offsite
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 725
What are the key control activities to be done to ensure business alignment?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
- A. Periodically identify critical data that affect business operations
- B. Establish an independent test task force that keeps track of all events
- C. Conduct IT continuity tests on a regular basis or when there are major changes in the IT infrastructure
- D. Define the business requirements for the management of data by IT
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Business alignment require following control activities:
Defining the business requirements for the management of data by IT.
Periodically identifying critical data that affect business operations, in alignment with the risk
management model and IT service as well as the business continuity plan.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Conducting IT continuity tests on a regular basis or when there are major changes in the IT infrastructure is done for testing IT continuity plan. It does not ensure alignment with business.
D: This is not a valid answer.
NEW QUESTION # 726
Mike is the project manager of the NNP Project for his organization. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for the NNP Project. Mike would like the project team to work together on establishing risk thresholds in the project. What is the purpose of establishing risk threshold?
- A. It is a limit of the funds that can be assigned to risk events.
- B. It helps to identify those risks for which specific responses are needed.
- C. It is a study of the organization's risk tolerance.
- D. It is a warning sign that a risk event is going to happen.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Risk threshold helps to identify those risks for which specific responses are needed.
NEW QUESTION # 727
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?
- A. Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades
- B. Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities
- C. Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches
- D. Document and implement a patching process
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 728
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?
- A. Percentage of business users completing risk training.
- B. Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response.
- C. Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined.
- D. Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 729
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