Easily To Pass New SY0-701 Premium Exam Updated [Nov 07, 2024]
SY0-701 Certification All-in-One Exam Guide Nov-2024
NEW QUESTION # 186
You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for a Windows service. It also has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet.
The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443.
The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and 192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any suspicious processes or connections.
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
- A. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
- B. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
- C. Install endpoint management software on all systems.
- D. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
- A. Rules of engagement
- B. Due diligence
- C. Right to audit clause
- D. Supply chain analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
* The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
* The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
* The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
* The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
* The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non- disclosure agreements for the test results.
* The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
* The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third- party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
References = https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of- engagement/
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
NEW QUESTION # 189
A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider consider first?
- A. Risks from hackers residing in other countries
- B. Time zone differences in log correlation
- C. Impacts to existing contractual obligations
- D. Local data protection regulations
Answer: D
Explanation:
Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there.
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of the following is die most important security concern when using legacy systems to provide production service?
- A. Lack of vendor support
- B. Loss of availability
- C. Instability
- D. Use of insecure protocols
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most important security concern when using legacy systems is the lack of vendor support. Without support from the vendor, systems may not receive critical security patches and updates, leaving them vulnerable to exploitation. This lack of support can result in increased risk of security breaches, as vulnerabilities discovered in the software may never be addressed.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the context of risk management and the challenges posed by legacy systems.
NEW QUESTION # 191
The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments. Which of the following describes this scenario?
- A. Data exfiltration
- B. Shadow IT
- C. Service disruption
- D. Insider threat
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Shadow IT is the term used to describe the use of unauthorized or unapproved IT resources within an organization. The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments, such as IT, security, or compliance. This could pose a risk to the organization's security posture, data integrity, and regulatory compliance1.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 192
A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?
- A. Packet captures
- B. Dashboard
- C. Metadata
- D. Vulnerability scans
Answer: B
Explanation:
A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact ofincidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
- A. Replication
- B. Recovery
- C. Failover
- D. Tabletop
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization's incident response plan and procedures.
It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the participants. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 525 1
NEW QUESTION # 194
A security analyst locates a potentially malicious video file on a server and needs to identify both the creation date and the file's creator. Which of the following actions would most likely give the security analyst the information required?
- A. Use hexdump on the file's contents.
- B. Check endpoint logs.
- C. Obtain the file's SHA-256 hash.
- D. Query the file's metadata.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, creation date, author, and other attributes. Video files, like other types of files, can contain metadata that can provide useful information for forensic analysis. For example, metadata can reveal the camera model, location, date and time, and software used to create or edit the video file. To query the file's metadata, a security analyst can use various tools, such as MediaInfo1, ffprobe2, or hexdump3, to extract and display the metadata from the video file. By querying the file's metadata, the security analyst can most likely identify both the creation date and the file's creator, as well as other relevant information. Obtaining the file's SHA-256 hash, checking endpoint logs, or using hexdump on the file's contents are other possible actions, but they are not the most appropriate to answer the question. The file's SHA-256 hash is a cryptographic value that can be used to verify the integrity or uniqueness of the file, but it does not reveal any information about the file's creation date or creator. Checking endpoint logs can provide some clues about the file's origin or activity, but it may not be reliable or accurate, especially if the logs are tampered with or incomplete. Using hexdump on the file's contents can show the raw binary data of the file, but it may not be easy or feasible to interpret the metadata from the hex output, especially if the file is large or encrypted. Reference: 1: How do I get the meta-data of a video file? 2: How to check if an mp4 file contains malware? 3: [Hexdump - Wikipedia]
NEW QUESTION # 195
Security controls in a data center are being reviewed to ensure data is properly protected and that human life considerations are included. Which of the following best describes how the controls should be set up?
- A. Logical security controls should fail closed.
- B. Logging controls should fail open.
- C. Remote access points should fail closed.
- D. Safety controls should fail open.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still trigger the sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked.
Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center's network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143, 372-373, 376-377
NEW QUESTION # 196
Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?
- A. Recovery
- B. Lessons learned
- C. Analysis
- D. Preparation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident.
Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are:
Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the communications lead, and the legal advisor.
Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and reporting mechanisms.
Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders.
Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach.
Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools, and communication and collaboration tools.
Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the external support.
Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies, and the media.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6: Architecture and Design, Section
6.4: Secure Systems Design, p. 279-280
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts, Sub-objective:
Incident response, p. 16
NEW QUESTION # 197
A company's legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
- A. Data masking
- B. Data sovereignty regulation
- C. Encryption
- D. Geolocation policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company's legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.
The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:
Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.
Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.
Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.
NEW QUESTION # 198
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities. The administrator also wants to apply the required access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
- A. SAML
- B. ACL
- C. RBAC
- D. GPO
Answer: C
Explanation:
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1
NEW QUESTION # 199
An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location. Which of the following is the VPN protecting?
- A. Data sovereignty
- B. Geographic restrictions
- C. Data in transit
- D. Data in use
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air.
Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 145.
NEW QUESTION # 200
Which of the following describes the reason root cause analysis should be conducted as part of incident response?
- A. To gather loCs for the investigation
- B. To prevent future incidents of the same nature
- C. To eradicate any trace of malware on the network
- D. To discover which systems have been affected
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying factors that led to an incident. By conducting root cause analysis as part of incident response, security professionals can learn from the incident and implement corrective actions to prevent future incidents of the same nature. For example, if the root cause of a data breach was a weak password policy, the security team can enforce a stronger password policy and educate users on the importance of password security. Root cause analysis can also help to improve security processes, policies, and procedures, and to enhance security awareness and culture within the organization.
Root cause analysis is not meant to gather loCs (indicators of compromise) for the investigation, as this is a task performed during the identification and analysis phases of incident response. Root cause analysis is also not meant to discover which systems have been affected or to eradicate any trace of malware on the network, as these are tasks performed during the containment and eradication phases of incident response. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 424-425; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.1 - Incident Response, 9:55 - 11:18.
NEW QUESTION # 201
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
- A. Network segmentation
- B. Transfer of risk
- C. SNMP traps
- D. Compensating control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 - 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 202
Which of the following involves an attempt to take advantage of database misconfigurations?
- A. Memory injection
- B. SQL injection
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. VM escape
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a database misconfiguration or a flaw in the application code that interacts with the database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL statements into the user input fields or the URL parameters that are sent to the database server. These statements can then execute unauthorized commands, such as reading, modifying, deleting, or creating data, or even taking over the database server. SQL injection can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215 1
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
- A. Replication
- B. Recovery
- C. Failover
- D. Tabletop
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization's incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the participants. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 525 1
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following best practices gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system to ensure availability and minimize business impacts?
- A. Backout plan
- B. Scheduled downtime
- C. Impact analysis
- D. Change management boards
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service. Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 12: Security Operations and Administration, page 579 1
NEW QUESTION # 205
A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. Which of the following strategies does this represent?
- A. Mitigate
- B. Transfer
- C. Accept
- D. Avoid
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the financial losses and liabilities that result from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service, phishing, or malware. Cyber insurance can help a company recover from the costs of restoring data, repairing systems, paying ransoms, compensating customers, or facing legal actions. Cyber insurance is one of the possible strategies that a company can use to address the items listed on the risk register. A risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their probability, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. The four common risk mitigation strategies are:
Accept: The company acknowledges the risk and decides to accept the consequences without taking any action to reduce or eliminate the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high.
Transfer: The company transfers the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is high or the company lacks the resources or expertise to handle the risk.
Mitigate: The company implements controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is moderate or the cost of mitigation is reasonable.
Avoid: The company eliminates the risk by changing the scope, plan, or design of the project or the organization. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is unacceptable or the cost of mitigation is too high.
By purchasing cyber insurance, the company is transferring the risk to the insurance company, which will cover the financial losses and liabilities in case of a cyberattack. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Transfer. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 377. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.1: Risk Management, video: Risk Mitigation Strategies (5:37).
NEW QUESTION # 206
A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis.
Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up?
- A. Preventive
- B. Detective
- C. Corrective
- D. Deterrent
Answer: B
Explanation:
A detective control is a type of control that monitors and analyzes the events and activities in a system or a network, and alerts or reports when an incident or a violation occurs. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is a tool that collects, correlates, and analyzes the logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, or applications, and provides a centralized view of the security status and incidents.
An analyst who reviews the logs on a weekly basis can identify and investigate any anomalies, trends, or patterns that indicate a potential threat or a breach. A detective control can help the company to respond quickly and effectively to the incidents, and to improve its security posture and resilience. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions:Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 23. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3, page
14.
NEW QUESTION # 207
An IT security team is concerned about the confidentiality of documents left unattended in MFPs. Which of the following should the security team do to mitigate the situation?
- A. Deploy an authentication factor that requires ln-person action before printing.
- B. Install a software client m every computer authorized to use the MFPs.
- C. Educate users about the importance of paper shredder devices.
- D. Update the management software to utilize encryption.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To mitigate the risk of confidential documents being left unattended in Multi-Function Printers (MFPs), implementing an authentication factor that requires in-person action before printing (such as PIN codes or badge scanning) is the most effective measure. This ensures that documents are only printed when the authorized user is present to collect them, reducing the risk of sensitive information being exposed.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of physical security and access control.
NEW QUESTION # 208
A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations. Which of the following should the hosting provider consider first?
- A. Risks from hackers residing in other countries
- B. Time zone differences in log correlation
- C. Impacts to existing contractual obligations
- D. Local data protection regulations
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage.
Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14.
NEW QUESTION # 209
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