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Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Test Engine Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps
NEW QUESTION # 38
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Evaluation of implementation details
- B. Hands-on testing
- C. Inventory and discovery
- D. Risk-based shakeout
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 39
The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure is known as:
- A. access control.
- B. media protect on.
- C. cryptograph
- D. confidentiality.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure is known as confidentiality. This is because confidentiality is one of the three main objectives of information security, along with integrity and availability. Confidentiality ensures that information is accessible and readable only by those who are authorized and intended to do so, and prevents unauthorized or accidental exposure of information to unauthorized parties. The other options are not the protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as access control (A), cryptography (B), or media protection C.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. The vulnerability program is formally approved
- B. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- C. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
- D. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability.
Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is the MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft?
- A. Physical damage to devices
- B. Cost of purchasing replacement devices
- C. Installation of unauthorized applications
- D. Compromise of transient data
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft is the compromise of transient data. Transient data is data that is temporarily stored or processed on a mobile device, such as cached data, cookies, browsing history, passwords, or session tokens. Transient data can reveal sensitive information about the user or the organization and can be exploited by attackers to gain access to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit?
- A. Secret Key Cryptography
- B. Elliptic Curve Cryptography
- C. Digital Signature Standard
- D. Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit. ECC is based on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves, which are curves that have a special shape that makes them suitable for cryptography. ECC can achieve the same level of security as other public key algorithms with much smaller key sizes, which reduces storage and bandwidth requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which intrusion detection system component is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces?
- A. Sensors
- B. Analyzers
- C. Administration modules
- D. Packet filters
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The intrusion detection system component that is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces is sensors. This is because sensors are components of an intrusion detection system that are deployed on various locations or points of the network or system, such as routers, switches, servers, etc., and that capture and collect data from the network traffic or system activities. Sensors then forward the collected data to another component of the intrusion detection system, such as analyzers, for further processing and analysis. The other options are not components of an intrusion detection system that are responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces, but rather different components or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as packet filters (A), analyzers (B), or administration modules C.
NEW QUESTION # 44
In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to;
- A. prove sender authenticity.
- B. ensure message integrity.
- C. ensure message accuracy.
- D. maintain confidentiality.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to prove sender authenticity. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a message to sign it with their private key, which can only be decrypted by their public key. The recipient can verify that the message was sent by the sender and not tampered with by using the sender's public key.
NEW QUESTION # 45
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Evaluation of implementation details
- B. Hands-on testing
- C. Inventory and discovery
- D. Hand-based shakeout
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is MOST important to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program?
- A. Processes are updated and documented annually.
- B. Processes are approved by the process owner.
- C. Processes are centralized and standardized.
- D. Processes are aligned with industry best practices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program is whether the processes are aligned with industry best practices. Identity management is the process of managing the identities and access rights of users across an organization's systems and resources. Industry best practices provide guidelines and standards for how to implement identity management in a secure, efficient, and compliant manner.
NEW QUESTION # 47
In cloud computing, which type of hosting is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment?
- A. Hybrid hosting
- B. Shared hosting
- C. Private hosting
- D. Public hosting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
In cloud computing, the type of hosting that is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment is private hosting. Private hosting is a type of cloud service model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and hosted either on-premise or off-premise by a third-party provider. Private hosting offers more control over the security, performance, customization, and compliance of the cloud environment than other types of hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- B. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
- C. Industry-specific security regulator
- D. Cybersecurity operations management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is a passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization?
- A. Crafting counterfeit websites
- B. Social engineering
- C. Scanning the network perimeter
- D. Using open source discovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization is using open source discovery. This is because open source discovery is a technique that involves collecting and analyzing publicly available information about an organization, such as its website, social media, press releases, annual reports, etc. Open source discovery does not require any direct interaction or communication with the target organization or its systems or network, and therefore does not generate any traffic or alerts that could be detected by the organization's security controls. The other options are not passive activities that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization, but rather active activities that involve direct or indirect interaction or communication with the target organization or its systems or network, such as scanning the network perimeter (B), social engineering C, or crafting counterfeit websites (D).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- B. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
- C. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- D. Lack of specificity m the principles
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization?
- A. Determine if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements.
D Obtain a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements. - B. Review the most recent legal and regulatory audit report conducted by an independent party.
- C. Determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization is to determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements. This is because mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements helps to ensure that the organization has identified and addressed all the applicable laws and regulations that affect its cybersecurity posture, such as data protection, privacy, breach notification, etc. Mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements also helps to evaluate the alignment and compliance of the organization's cybersecurity policies, procedures, controls, and practices with the legal and regulatory requirements. The other options are not the first thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization, but rather follow after determining if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements, such as reviewing the most recent legal and regulatory audit report (B), determining if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements C, or obtaining a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements (D).
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which control mechanism is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings?
- A. File integrity
- B. Sandboxing
- C. Whitelisting
- D. URL filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The control mechanism that is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings is file integrity. File integrity is the property of ensuring that files are not altered or corrupted by unauthorized users or processes. File integrity can be monitored by using tools that compare the current state of files with a baseline or checksum and alert on any changes.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Command injection
- B. Social injection
- C. Social engineering
- D. Denial of service
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following is the SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media?
- A. Differential Backup
- B. Monthly backup
- C. Full backup
- D. Incremental backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup makes the restoration process slower, as it requires restoring multiple backups in a specific order and sequence, starting from the last full backup and then applying each incremental backup until the desired point in time is reached. The other options are not methods of restoring data from backup media that are slower than an incremental backup, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as monthly backup (A), full backup (B), or differential backup C.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing?
- A. Top management support
- B. Budget for additional technical resources
- C. Surplus processing capacity
- D. Budget for additional storage hardware
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important factor to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing is top management support. This is because top management support helps to provide the vision, direction, and resources for implementing continuous auditing within the organization. Top management support also helps to overcome any resistance or challenges that may arise from implementing continuous auditing, such as cultural change, stakeholder buy-in, process reengineering, etc. Top management support also helps to ensure that the results and findings of continuous auditing are communicated and acted upon by the relevant decision-makers and stakeholders. The other options are not factors that are more important than top management support for ensuring the successful implementation of continuous auditing, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as storage hardware (A), technical resources (B), or processing capacity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 56
While risk is measured by potential activity, which of the following describes the actual occurrence of a threat?
- A. Payload
- B. Attack
- C. Vulnerability
- D. Target
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An attack is the actual occurrence of a threat, which is a potential activity that could harm an asset. An attack is the result of a threat actor exploiting a vulnerability in a system or network to achieve a malicious objective.
For example, a denial-of-service attack is the occurrence of a threat that aims to disrupt the availability of a service.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Availability can be protected through the use of:
- A. user awareness training and related end-user training.
- B. access controls. We permissions, and encryption.
- C. redundancy, backups, and business continuity management
- D. logging, digital signatures, and write protection.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Availability can be protected through the use of redundancy, backups, and business continuity management.
This is because these measures help to ensure that systems, data, and services are accessible and functional at all times, even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The other options are not directly related to protecting availability, but rather focus on enhancing confidentiality (A), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 58
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