Current 220-1202 Exam Dumps [2025] Complete CompTIA Exam Smoothly
220-1202 Premium PDF & Test Engine Files with 158 Questions & Answers
NEW QUESTION # 10
Which of the following methods would make data unrecoverable but allow the drive to be repurposed?
- A. Implementing EFS
- B. Deleting the partitions
- C. Degaussing the device
- D. Performing a low-level format
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.
A: Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.
B: EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.
D: Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, implement basic change management best practices.
Study Guide Section: Drive sanitation methods - low-level format vs. degaussing vs. deletion
NEW QUESTION # 11
A user reports that their corporate mobile phone is lost. Which of the following protects the data locally on the phone from unauthorized access?
- A. Password manager
- B. Remote wipe
- C. Degaussing
- D. Antivirus
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Remote wipeis a mobile device management (MDM) feature that allows administrators to erase data remotely if a device is lost or stolen, preventing unauthorized access to corporate or personal information.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Remote wipe features enable a device to be cleared of all sensitive data if it is lost or stolen. This is one of the most effective ways to prevent unauthorized access to corporate resources."
NEW QUESTION # 12
A Microsoft OS laptop user frequently forgets their password. Which alternative login method should a technician enable?
- A. Single sign-on
- B. BitLocker
- C. Windows Hello
- D. User Account Control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Windows Helloallows biometric and PIN-based login, which are easier and more user-friendly than passwords.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Windows Hello supports biometric authentication and PINs, providing easier and secure access especially for users who have trouble remembering passwords."
NEW QUESTION # 13
After completing malware removal steps, what is the next step the technician should take?
- A. Perform a secondary antivirus scan
- B. Educate the end user
- C. Reimage the computer
- D. Review system logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
End-user education is crucial after malware removal to prevent recurrence. Teaching safe browsing habits and security awareness completes the remediation cycle.
Mark Soper - Mike Meyers' Lab Manualstates:
"Educating the user after malware remediation is part of the CompTIA malware response methodology. This includes training on phishing and safe practices."
NEW QUESTION # 14
A Microsoft OS laptop user requests an alternative log-in authentication method because they have forgotten their password multiple times. Which of the following should a technician enable to satisfy this request?
- A. Single sign-on
- B. BitLocker
- C. Windows Hello
- D. User Account Control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Windows Helloprovides alternative sign-in options including facial recognition, fingerprint scans, and PINs, reducing dependence on passwords.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"Windows Hello offers a range of biometric and PIN-based login methods designed to simplify access while enhancing security."
"It can be used in place of a password, ideal for users who frequently forget credentials."
NEW QUESTION # 15
An administrator is investigating a zero-day vulnerability. If left unpatched, it could severely impact business.
The patch requires downtime. What should the administrator do?
- A. Continue operations until the next change interval.
- B. Create a standard change request.
- C. Implement an emergency change.
- D. Immediately freeze all changes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Azero-day vulnerabilitydemands an emergency change to quickly secure the system, even if downtime is needed.
FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:
"Emergency changes bypass standard scheduling to quickly address critical vulnerabilities that pose immediate risks." .
NEW QUESTION # 16
The screen of a previously working computer repeatedly displays an OS Not Found error message when the computer is started. Only a USB drive, a keyboard, and a mouse are plugged into the computer. Which of the following should a technician do first?
- A. Run data recovery tools on the disk
- B. Switch from UEFI to BIOS
- C. Partition the disk using the GPT format
- D. Check boot options
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An "OS Not Found" error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn't contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system's firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It's possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.
A: Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.
B: Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data-this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.
D: Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.7: Troubleshoot common operating system problems.
Study Guide Section: Boot process and boot order configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A technician is assigned to offboard a user. Which of the following are common tasks on an offboarding checklist? (Choose two.)
- A. Suspend the user's email account.
- B. Turn off the network ports underneath the user's desk.
- C. Purge all PII associated with the user.
- D. Add the MAC address of the user's computer to a blocklist.
- E. Deactivate the user's key fobs for door access.
- F. Quarantine the hard drive in the user's laptop.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
User offboarding involves disabling the departing user's access to company systems and facilities. Two key tasks typically include:
* Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).
* Suspending or disabling the user's email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).
A: Quarantining a hard drive is not standard unless malware or legal issues are involved.
C: Purging PII must follow legal retention policies; it's not typically an immediate offboarding task.
E: Disabling network ports may be relevant in some cases but is not a standard offboarding step.
F: Blocking MAC addresses is not typical unless the device is considered a security threat.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement proper documentation and offboarding procedures.
Study Guide Section: User lifecycle management - onboarding and offboarding tasks
NEW QUESTION # 18
A user reports some single sign-on errors to a help desk technician. Currently, the user is able tosign in to the company's application portal but cannot access a specific SaaS-based tool. Which of the following would the technician most likely suggest as a next step?
- A. Reset the device being used to factory defaults
- B. Bypass single sign-on by directly authenticating to the application
- C. Reenroll the user's mobile device to be used as an MFA token
- D. Use a private browsing window to avoid local session conflicts
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
SSO issues are often related to cached session data, cookies, or browser artifacts. The fact that the user can access the company portal but not one specific SaaS tool suggests a session or token problem. Using a private
/incognito browsing window allows a clean session to be initiated, which often resolves SSO conflicts.
A: Reenrolling MFA is not related unless access issues stem from failed multifactor authentication.
C: Bypassing SSO may not be possible depending on the SaaS tool and company policies.
D: Factory resetting a device is a last resort and unnecessary in this case.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common software, application, and OS security issues.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting login and authentication issues, especially with SSO services.
NEW QUESTION # 19
A technician is troubleshooting a print spooler that fails to start on a Windows 11 desktop computer. The technician determines the root cause is that required dependencies are failing to run. Which of the following tools is the technician using?
- A. Startup
- B. Services
- C. Performance
- D. Process
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
TheServicestool in Windows allows a technician to view service dependencies and status. If the print spooler can't start due to a dependency, Services is the correct tool to inspect and manage them.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"The Services console allows technicians to view, start, and configure system services, including setting recovery actions and viewing dependencies."
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following file types would a desktop support technician most likely use to automate tasks for a Windows user log-in?
- A. .py
- B. .js
- C. .bat
- D. .sh
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A: .bat file (batch file) is a script file in DOS, OS/2, and Microsoft Windows. It contains a series of commands that are executed by the command-line interpreter. In Windows environments, batch files are commonly used to automate log-in tasks, such as mapping network drives, launching applications, or setting environment variables during the user's logon process.
B: .sh is a shell script used in Linux/Unix environments.
C: .py is a Python script, which can be used for automation but is not commonly run directly at user logon in standard Windows environments.
D: .js is JavaScript, used mainly in web development and not for system-level scripting in Windows logon automation.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.3: Use appropriate Microsoft operating system features and tools.
Study Guide Section: Scripting basics and file types for automation - .bat for Windows
NEW QUESTION # 21
A user recently installed an application that accesses a database from a local server. When launching the application, it does not populate any information. Which of the following command-line tools is the best to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. ipconfig
- B. nslookup
- C. netstat
- D. curl
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The scenario involves an application that should retrieve data from a local database server but is failing to do so. This likely indicates a problem in communication between the application and the database server (such as a network issue, port misconfiguration, or service unavailability). The correct troubleshooting approach involves testing the network/service connectivity between the client and the database.
Let's examine the options:
A). ipconfig:This command displays IP configuration details for Windows systems, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. While useful for diagnosing general network issues, it does not test service connectivity or the availability of a specific application port/service.
B). nslookup:Used to query DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses. However, since the question references a local server (likely accessed via IP or static hostname), DNS is probably not involved.
Also, it does not test application/service availability.
C). netstat:Displays active TCP connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It helps determine whether the local system is listening for or maintaining any network connections, but it does not initiate a connection to test availability. It's diagnostic but not interactive for service testing.
D). curl:This is the most appropriate tool for this scenario. curl is used to test connectivity to services over protocols like HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and more. If the application retrieves data via a web interface or API (common in database-driven applications), curl can be used to test if the application can successfully reach and retrieve data from the server. It provides immediate, testable feedback on whether the server and service are available and responsive.
Example usage:
curlhttp://localhost:8080/api/data
This command would test whether a local server's application programming interface (API) is available and responding on port 8080.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:
Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and support Windows OS issues.
Objective 3.3: Use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and resolve issues.
The CompTIA A+ Core 2 study guide references curl as a useful command-line utility for testing connectivity and troubleshooting application access to services.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following is found in an MSDS sheet for a battery backup?
- A. Emergency procedures
- B. Installation instructions
- C. Configuration steps
- D. Voltage specifications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now commonly referred to as SDS (Safety Data Sheet), is a document that provides detailed information on the properties of a particular substance. It includes safety guidelines and emergency procedures related to handling, exposure, fire hazards, and first aid-not installation or configuration instructions.
For a battery backup (UPS device), the MSDS would include emergency procedures such as what to do in case of a chemical spill, exposure to battery acid, or fire hazard due to overheating or chemical leakage. This ensures the safety of personnel and complies with hazardous materials handling regulations.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management.
Study Guide Section: MSDS/SDS usage and safety documentation
NEW QUESTION # 23
After a recent mobile OS upgrade to a smartphone, a user attempts to access their corporate email, but the application does not open. A technician restarts the smartphone, but the issue persists. Which of the following is the most likely way to resolve the issue?
- A. Clearing the cache partition
- B. Registering the smartphone with an MDM solution
- C. Updating the failed software
- D. Installing a third-party client
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn't been updated to support the latest OS version.
B: Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn't address app crashes due to incompatibility.
C: A third-party client might help, but it's not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.
DL Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses compatibility concerns.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot mobile OS and application issues.
Study Guide Section: App compatibility and mobile software updates
NEW QUESTION # 24
A user has rooted their corporate phone to load unapproved software. Which of the following tools should the company use to prevent access to the corporate network?
- A. Lock screen
- B. Encryption
- C. Mobile device management
- D. Geofencing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows an organization to enforce security policies, such as denying network access to jailbroken/rooted devices.
From the All-in-One Exam Guide by Travis Everett and Andrew Hutz:
"MDM software allows administrators to monitor, manage, and secure mobile devices connected to enterprise networks. One key feature is the detection and denial of access for rooted or jailbroken devices".
Quentin Docter also confirms:
"An MDM solution can check if a device has been rooted and prevent it from accessing the network, ensuring compliance with corporate security standards".
NEW QUESTION # 25
A customer wants to be able to work from home but does not want to be responsible for bringingcompany equipment back and forth. Which of the following would allow the user to remotely access and use a Windows PC at the main office? (Choose two.)
- A. RDP
- B. RMM
- C. SPICE
- D. SSH
- E. WinRM
- F. VPN
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:
* C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.
* D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.
A: SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.
B: SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.
E: RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support - not end-user remote access.
F: WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objectives 2.2 & 4.4: Compare and contrast security tools and remote access methods.
Study Guide Section: Remote access tools - RDP and VPN for secure remote work
NEW QUESTION # 26
A user frequently misplaces their Windows laptop and is concerned about it being stolen. The user would like additional security controls on their laptop. Which of the following is a built-in technology that a technician can use to enable full drive encryption?
- A. Active Directory
- B. New Technology File System
- C. BitLocker
- D. Encrypting File System
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
BitLocker is Microsoft's full disk encryption technology built into Windows Pro and Enterprise editions. It encrypts the entire drive, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. BitLocker can use TPM (Trusted Platform Module) and can be configured with PINs or USB keys for added security.
A: Active Directory is for centralized user and policy management in domains.
B: NTFS is the file system format and doesn't provide encryption by itself.
C: EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts individual files or folders, not the entire drive.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and encryption tools.
Study Guide Section: Encryption options - BitLocker vs. EFS
NEW QUESTION # 27
A technician needs to disable guest log-ins on domain-joined desktop machines. Which of the following should be used?
- A. MSConfig
- B. Firewall
- C. Group Policy
- D. Microsoft Management Console
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Group Policyis the standard administrative tool for setting user permissions across domain-joined systems.
FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPLETE Study Guide:
"Use Group Policy to enforce user rights, including disabling guest account access on domain computers."
NEW QUESTION # 28
A technician is troubleshooting an issue in which a service runs momentarily and stops at certain points in the process. The technician needs to determine the root cause of this issue. Which of the following tools should the technician use?
- A. Task Manager
- B. Process Explorer
- C. Internet Options
- D. Event Viewer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Event Viewer is the best tool to analyze the root cause of service failures in Windows. It provides detailed logs from system processes, including errors, warnings, and crash reports related to services and applications.
When a service starts and stops unexpectedly, Event Viewer will often record the cause, such as dependency failures or access violations.
B: Task Manager shows active processes but doesn't retain logs or causes of failure.
C: Internet Options is used for configuring browser settings, not troubleshooting services.
D: Process Explorer is powerful but more suited for live monitoring and detailed process trees, not post- failure log analysis.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common Windows OS problems.
Study Guide Section: Log file analysis using Event Viewer
NEW QUESTION # 29
A Chief Executive Officer wants to meet with remote employees in a way that will allow for communication and training. Which of the following software technologies is the best for this situation?
- A. Videoconferencing
- B. Remote Desktop
- C. Screen sharing
- D. Virtual desktop infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Videoconferencingplatforms allow real-time face-to-face communication and are ideal for collaborative training sessions involving remote employees.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"Videoconferencing tools such as Zoom or Microsoft Teams are specifically designed for real-time communication and training, making them ideal for executive or large-group meetings."
NEW QUESTION # 30
When a corporate laptop is connected to the company network, it can reach external websites. However, it cannot reach any internal websites, displaying the error message "Cannot reach this page." Which of the following should a technician configure?
- A. DHCP
- B. DNS settings
- C. Default gateway
- D. Subnet mask
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
If internal resources (such as intranet or internal apps) can't be accessed but external sites work, this often points to aDNS issue, where the system isn't resolving internal domain names correctly.
FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:
"When internet access is functional but internal sites fail to load, the issue usually lies with DNS resolution.
Internal resources often require internal DNS servers, which may not be configured correctly."
NEW QUESTION # 31
An administrator is investigating a technical outage. The management team wants information that includes the summary of the outage and actions taken. Which of the following documentation should the administrator provide to the management team?
- A. Non-disclosure agreement
- B. Incident report
- C. Knowledge base article
- D. Standard operating procedure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An incident report documents key details such as the cause of the outage, steps taken to resolve it, and measures to prevent recurrence. It is a post-mortem analysis often shared with stakeholders to improve future response.
According to the Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"An incident report provides a summary of an event that disrupted normal operations and includes a timeline of what occurred, how the issue was diagnosed and fixed, and who was involved in the resolution".
This is reaffirmed in Travis Everett's All-in-One Guide:
"Documentation after an incident helps technical teams and management review the situation and learn from it. This is formalized in an incident report".
NEW QUESTION # 32
MFA for a custom web application on a user's smartphone is no longer working. The last time the user remembered it working was before taking a vacation to another country. Which of the following should the technician do first?
- A. Uninstall and reinstall the application
- B. Escalate to the website developer
- C. Verify the date and time settings
- D. Apply mobile OS patches
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) apps, especially time-based one-time password (TOTP) apps (e.g., Google Authenticator, Authy), rely on accurate time synchronization between the device and the authentication server. If the user recently traveled internationally, the device may have incorrect date/time settings due to time zone changes or failed synchronization, leading to MFA failure.
The most logical and non-intrusive first step is to verify and correct the date and time settings. This aligns with basic troubleshooting principles-start with the simplest and most likely cause before taking more drastic action.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, apply cybersecurity best practices to secure a workstation.
Study Guide Section: Authentication technologies and MFA troubleshooting
NEW QUESTION # 33
Technicians are failing to document user contact information, device asset tags, and a clear description of each issue in the ticketing system. Which of the following should a help desk management team implement for technicians to use on every call?
- A. Service-level agreements
- B. Knowledge base articles
- C. Call categories
- D. Standard operating procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) define the mandatory steps and expectations technicians must follow during support calls. This includes documentation standards such as logging user info, asset details, and issue descriptions in the ticketing system. Implementing SOPs ensures consistency and accountability.
A: SLAs define response/resolution times but not documentation practices.
B: Call categories organize types of issues but don't guide technician actions.
D: Knowledge base articles provide solutions to known problems but don't ensure proper ticket documentation.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.2: Summarize best practices associated with types of documentation and support systems information.
Study Guide Section: Documentation practices, SOPs, ticketing protocols
NEW QUESTION # 34
Multiple users are reporting audio issues as well as performance issues after downloading unauthorized software. You have been dispatched to identify and resolve any issues on the network using best practice procedures.
INSTRUCTIONS
Quarantine and configure the appropriate device(s) so that the users' audio issues are resolved using best practice procedures.
Multiple devices may be selected for quarantine.
Click on a host or server to configure services.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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